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Index: February 5, 2004


Winston B. sent the following question to us: "How does the second law of thermodynamics prove that the universe is finite and not eternal?"

My response:

I would be very careful about using the word "prove" in this matter. The future is yet to come and not even empirical science can be absolutely certain about future events. Given this disclaimer, however, there is ample evidence based on the second law of thermodynamics that the universe may come to an end. That's the scientific case. Philosophy really doesn't have much to say on the matter (although Aristotle thought the universe to be eternal) but, from a philosophical standpoint, I think a universe without end is possible, although not provable. Christian theology, however, seems to suggest some end to the universe based, of course, on revelation.

Now, whether the universe is finite and whether the universe is eternal are really two separate issues. From the viewpoint of Classical Realism as it is presently understood, the universe is finite in the sense that it is contingent, that is, not necessary. In the Theistic tradition of Classical Realism, only God or the Supreme Being is infinite and everything else is finite. Given that, however, from a philosophical perspective, the universe, while being finite, could be eternal, that is, existing for all time. There is nothing inherently illogical about supposing that.

Let's now define the scientific law we're talking about and then explain what it means from the viewpoint of empirical science (see source below):

The second law of thermodynamics:

Heat will always flow "downhill," i.e., from an object having a higher temperature to one having a lower temperature; thus it is impossible for hear to flow spontaneously from an object with a lower temperature to one with a higher temperature, and work must be done to transfer heat energy from a lower temperature to a higher temperature. [The law was discovered by Rudolf J.E. Clausius in 1850, although many others came close to proposing the law as early as 1824.]
 
Since heat always flows "downhill," within a closed system everything will eventually reach the same temperature. For example, a warm mug of tea set on a cold table will pass heat to the table. Once the mug and table are the same temperature, no more work can be extracted from the mug. The molecules of the system (mug and table) are more disordered than initially and cannot be made more orderly without an injection of energy from the outside.
 
In mathematical and physical terms, a system in which everything is at the same temperature is considered "orderly," and higher temperatures introduce "disorder." The term entropy is the quantitative measure of the relative disorder of a system. When work is done, the total entropy of the system increases. This principle applies to all kinds of energy. Some scientists believe that the energy in the universe will eventually be distributed evenly and irrevocably, creating a condition of universal entropy -- or the "heat death" of the universe.

Source: Science Desk Reference, The New York Public Library and Patricia Barnes-Svarney, Ed. Dir., New York: A Stonesong Press Book, 1995. (see the books at the right)

You might want to consult the following articles which appear in The World Treasury of Physics, Astronomy, and Mathematics (see the books at the right):

  • Max Planck, "The Second Law of Thermodynamics," pp. 163-169.
  • John D. Barrow and Joseph Silk, "How Will the World End?," pp. 425-427.

I have also posted a new article in the Philosophical Critiques section which deals somewhat briefly with this issue but may be valuable to your understanding:

I am not sure this reply satisfies you, but it should give you some resources to consult and some food for thought.

Jonathan Dolhenty, Ph.D.

The New York Public Library Science Desk Reference,
by Patricia Barnes-Svarney (ed.)

The World Treasury of Physics, Astronomy and Mathematics,
by Timothy Ferris (ed.)


This question was also submitted through our "Ask the Academy" message form:

If God is all powerful, why would he let all the people die on Sept. 11th. They had hopes and dreams and families. And If priest are the closest thing to God on earth. Why does he let them molest little children. He works in "mysterious ways" and "He has a plan for us all" are not good answers !!!!

My response:

I agree with you that "God works in mysterious ways" and "He has a plan for us all" are not satisfactory answers to the problem of evil in the world, at least from a philosophical point of view. But I am not sure I can give you a satisfactory answer here considering that the topic is very complex and has been a source of contention for centuries. In fact, I'm not sure I have even begun to satisfy myself regarding this problem. But, nevertheless, let me make a few personal remarks concerning the issue.

I think the existence of evil can at least be considered within two categories of evil: (1) the fact that free-willing human beings commit acts of terrible evil, and (2) the fact that "natural" evils are evident such as earthquakes, floods, hurricanes, and so forth. The first category I can deal with somewhat; the second category, speaking as a philosopher, is the one in which I am clueless. Empirical science can give us all the proximate causes for the "natural" evils, the hows and whys. But not even empirical science can give us the "ultimate" cause of natural evils.

From a strictly philosophical perspective, I would say that "human caused" evil exists because human acts are freely-willed acts, that is, human beings can will to do evil rather than good. If human beings did not possess free-will, in my thinking, they would not be human beings at all, but would have to be classified as just another member of the kingdom of "brutes," that is, placed in the same category as our dogs and cats and so forth, without moral responsibility and accountability. Human beings would cease to be moral beings.

Since I think human beings are moral beings, and possessed of free-will, they can, of course, choose to do bad things. Why did God give human beings a free will? I can go this far philosophically by asking this question: What good would it do God to create beings that were essentially automatons who were devoid of free-will if what he wanted were beings that would freely choose to communicate with him, be friends with him, be companionate, and so forth. I am assuming here a personal God, a God who wants you involved with him and wants to be involved with you. I am stretching the philosophical point here, however, as I am not convinced that philosophy itself can logically posit the existence of a "personal" God, that is, the God of religion or theology.

There are a number of theories put forth to explain the problem of evil from a theological viewpoint. I have my own ideas about the theological problems involved in this issue, but I am not prepared to make them public at this time. This is why I am emphasizing the philosophical viewpoint rather than the theological one. Besides, I cannot in this brief space even being to deal with such an immense and important issue. So....

I have now placed in The Radical Academy Bookstore a special section for books about "the problem of evil." I have carefully chosen those books which I think may help you and anyone else in dealing with this issue. I encourage you to use one or more of them as a resource. I am sorry I can't provide you with the ultimate solution to the problem of evil. After all, I am only human, and an inquiring philosopher at that.

Jonathan Dolhenty, Ph.D.

Click Here for Books in the Academy Bookstore about The Problem of Evil


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